My ex-wife got the home as part of our divorce. I know she walked away from it and it was foreclosed. I'm trying to figure out the foreclosure date. Also, when I go back on the records, the home was solely in her name. Do I still need to say I had a foreclosure? When talking to others about foreclosure date. They say to use the date it was judged to be in foreclosure, others say the date it sold. This is about 5-6 years ago. I never got any documents stating it was foreclosed. I want to attempt to get a mortgage but don't want to be denied. I want my ducks in a row.
If I understand you correctly, you are not sure if you were financially responsible for the Mortgage on the home at the time of foreclosure. I'm assuming prior to the divorce you were and that afterward you think your wife may have refinanced the loan, is that correct? If she did in fact refinance the loan into her name only, then you would not be responsible. If she did not, you would still be responsible.
I recommend pulling a copy of all three of your credit reports (you can get 1 free copy from each credit agency annually). If you were held responsible for the foreclosures, it should be noted on one or all of the reports (if within the last 7 years). If so, you might be able to determine the dates you need based on their entries.